A Logical Reasoning Question

A recent study found that men are, on average, five points ahead of women in IQ. 80,000 IQ tests were given and an additional 20,000 students were studied. The scientists concluded that men were generally smarter than women and that these differences "may go some way to explaining the greater numbers of men achieving distinctions of various kinds, such as chess grandmasters, Fields medallists for mathematics, Nobel prize-winners and the like".

The above conclusion depends on assuming all of the following EXCEPT:

a) The IQ test is an accurate and objective assessment of intelligence, not subject to cultural or other biases.

b) Studies such as this one do not reenforce the idea that men are smarter than women, thereby effecting the confidence of women, who then do worse on IQ tests.

c) Women are not prevented from achieving distinctions by the limitations placed on them by an oppresive society.

d) No conclusion about "whether men are women are smarter" can be scientific and such a conclusion can only serve as a mouthpiece for bias.

e) The researchers do not have a predisposition to believe that men are smarter that keeps them from questioning the IQ test's worth for measuring intelligence.


What answer did you pick?